A 36-year-old woman was referred for
a specialist opinion regarding a newly discovered liver nodule.
The lesion was detected by ultrasonographic
examination during assessment of acute right hypochondriac pain.
She was otherwise healthy, and was
taking oral contraceptive pills.
The lesion was 2x3 cm in size and
showed central hyper-echoic area suggestive of hemorrhage.
These features were
further confirmed by MRI.
Her biochemistry was normal including
serum alpha-fetoprotein.
The best therapeutic option is:
A-
Monitoring with ultrasonography every 3 months
B-
Triphasic CT scanning
C-
Trans-arterial chemo-embolization
D- Radiofrequency ablation
E-
Surgical resection
Check the answer and explanation
below
Answer : E
Explanation:
The clinical scenario,
combined with the radiological findings, is suggestive of hepatic adenoma (also
called hepatocellular adenoma).
Oral
contraceptives are associated with increased risk of hepatic adenomas.
Adenoma
should be resected if it's symptomatic (hemorrhage or necrosis) , or it's 5 cm or more.
Asymptomatic
and smaller adenomas are monitored on a regular basis.
Trans-arterial chemo-embolization and
radiofrequency ablation are local
therapies for hepatocellular carcinoma and not indicated for the treatment of hepatic adenoma.
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